Re: Vrddhi in sigmatic aorist

--- In cybalist@..., Miguel Carrasquer Vidal <mcv@...> wrote:

> On Wed, 31 Oct 2001 09:47:19 -0000, "Sergejus Tarasovas"
> <S.Tarasovas@...> wrote:
>
>
> I have of course suggested that the *x in the loc.pl. (*-sW-i ~
> *-sW-u) and the 2sg.pres.them.act. -es^I (*-e-sWi) have the same
> explanation. I would also want the dem. pronoun *so ~ *to- to have
> been originally *sWo- ~ *to-, but of course Slavic offers no

evidence

> for that, because the nom.sg.masc. has been regularized to <tU>. Or
> does it? Slavic is known to have used postfixed pronouns as a kind

of

> definite article (e.g. OCS rodU-sI > rodosI, rabU-tU > rabotU, and

of

> course novU-jI > novyj).

Is the Bulgarian definite article -&t/-ta/-to descended directly from
this (by regularisation?) or is it a later innovation?

Torsten