[tied] Re: Interpreting some Scythian names

> My untutored use of
> Indic and Iranic (and some of your corrections I
> obviously accept) does not mean that I consider
> Scythian to have been an Indic or Iranic dialect (I
> also used extant Thracian on occasion). Viktor Petrov
> (no mean linguist) exploded the myth of Scythian
> Iranism a generation ago, demonstrating that it was a
> distinct East European satem language with multiple
> affinities.

That is absolutely ridiculous. Apparently no one has been convinced
by Petroc, btw, as the overwhelming concensus (except amongst a
handful of kooks of the type that think the Scythians were the lost
tribe of Israel) is that Scythians spoke an Iranian dialect - and in
fact the best results in providing etymologies for Scythian
onomastics comes from comparing the names to other Iranian dialects.
It is well known and widely accepted that the Alans were cultural
descendants of the Scythians - and modern day descendants of the
Alans now live in Ossetia - and guess what? Their language is Iranian.

> And if Herodotus says that "arima" meant
> "one"(or some equivalent thereof)in Scythian, then I
> must believe him, other things being equal (and they
> haven't yet been shown not to be).==I would still,
> however, like to read what you have to say about
> AUKHATA, if and when you have the time.******

Why believe Herodotus? It's not likely that he had any real command
of Scythian. Ancient authors were notorious for falsely folk-
etymologizing names that they didn't understand - there is no reason
to accept Herodotus over modern scientific analysis.

- Chris Gwinn