[tied] Re: Goths: IE Languages vs Germanic

--- In cybalist@..., lsroute66@... wrote:

> --- In cybalist@..., "Piotr Gasiorowski" <gpiotr@...> wrote:
> <<The pronunciation was not quite the same; it was just the closest
> approximation available to the Classical writers.>>
>
> Just a thought. Conversely, how did the very early Germanics
> "approximate" Greek or Roman sounds? Given the relative richnesses
> of the cultures, one would expect a lot more words going north than
> going south. Before direct contact, those words might have traveled
> through Celtic, Thracian, Scythian, Getic, Baltic, etc. speakers.

And

> there may have been a great deal of "approximating" going on. And
> there may have been a good deal of folk etymologizing afterwards to
> turn them back into "native words."
>
> Regards, Steve Long

But, conversely, from that fact that most of those Germanic loans
into Western Romance languages (war, ward > guerra, guard etc) that
are traditionally assumed to be loaned in the migration period, are
common to those languages, might we not infer that they were loaned
before the Romance-speakers were immobilized by the collapse of the
empire, ie. in the late Roman contact period?

Torsten