From: lsroute66@...
Message: 10425
Date: 2001-10-19
--- In cybalist@..., "Piotr Gasiorowski" <gpiotr@...> wrote:
<<The pronunciation was not quite the same; it was just the closest
approximation available to the Classical writers.>>
Just a thought. Conversely, how did the very early Germanics
"approximate" Greek or Roman sounds? Given the relative richnesses
of the cultures, one would expect a lot more words going north than
going south. Before direct contact, those words might have traveled
through Celtic, Thracian, Scythian, Getic, Baltic, etc. speakers. And
there may have been a great deal of "approximating" going on. And
there may have been a good deal of folk etymologizing afterwards to
turn them back into "native words."
Regards, Steve Long