[tied] Re: Odin as a Trojan Prince

--- In cybalist@..., "Alexander Stolbov" <astolbov@...> wrote:

> The idea that in the basis of both Greek and Roman mythologies lies
> ultimately the same Aegean source only slightly coloured with

sparse IE

> motifs seems to me rather likeable too.
>
> However we may not equate Helladic Pelasgians and the Anatolian

ancestors of

> Etruscans. Pelasgians appeared in Greece before Greeks, i.e. not

later than

> in the Middle Bronze Age. Archaeology allows us think that

population of

> Middle Greece (Early Helladic II B), Cyclades (Early Cycladic II B)

and the

> West Anatolian coast (Troy II) was since the middle of the 3rd

millennium

> actually the same and had eastern roots. Perhaps the main "Aegean"
> mythological ideas were formed in that period (if not earlier). But

the

> destinies of the west and east coasts of the Aegean sea were

different. The

> former was "covered" by the Greek superstratum, and the latter - by

Luwian

> one. Besides, more than 1500 years had to pass before the Greek

mythology

> was formulated by Hesiod & Homer and Etruscans left for Italy.
> So in my opinion we should treat Pelasgians and Etruscans as

cousins.

>
> Alexander

Question: Where do the Lemnians fit in this? Without going out of my
depth in dangerous linguistic waters, aren't Etruscan and Lemnian
close enough that they must be on the same side of the significant
linguistic division you are talking about?

Might Luwian and later Lycian and Lydian be the incoming IE Anatolian
language with a Pelasgo-Tyrrheno-Aegeanic-whatever substrate, and
thus the Etrusco-Lemnian are languages that actually missed most of
the Indoeuropeanization? And thus being *potentially* more akin to
mainland Pelasgian survivals than the Indo-Europeanized W. Anatolian
cousins that you talked about? There I go swimming with the sharks
again...


-Mr. Caws