Re: [tied] e/o

Because they originally carried sentence accent. It's a matter of relative chronology. Nouns like *wog^Hos were formed from verbs like *weg^He- at a rather early time, when accent-to-quality rules were still productive. Denominal verbs like *wog^Heje-, on the other hand, are relatively young and so preserve the vocalism of their bases. I haven't got a good theory about the origin of *-o-presents including the stative conjugation, but ask again later -- I'll think of something :)

Piotr

----- Original Message -----
From: Glen Gordon

To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com

Sent: Wednesday, July 18, 2001 4:21 PM

Subject: Re: [tied] e/o

Wait a minute. I need clarification. Are you suggesting that *esti, for example, has e-vocalism because of being unstressed in a typical IE sentence while verbs with -o- (cf.stative) are that way because of being deverbal nouns? That doesn't make sense. Then the question still becomes: Why do all these deverbal nouns have "o" in the first place?