Re: Language - Area - Routes

--- In cybalist@..., tgpedersen@... wrote:

> I fail to see he has explained to me "very clearly the origin and
> meaning of the term". He did have (in an earlier mail) a possible
> origin of the the word but not a definitive one. Concluding from
> this, as you do, that the term is "completely meaningless" when used
> of fourth century Slavs, is, shall we say, jumping to conclusions.

I

> suggest you take up the matter with mr Grammaticus himself.
> It has nothing to with "hurt feelings", but with... allow me a

quote:

> "It is not enough to be right, you have to be polite, too"
>
> Torsten

You (I hope accidently) just didn't cite the postings which contained
the proper explanation. Again,

all the mentions of Rutheni(Lat.)/hoi' Rho:~s(Greek) in contexts
where their ethnicity is clearly identified (for instance,
anthroponymy and toponymy provided) indicate their Germanic origin,
their language probably being close to Old Norse. If it's really
important, I can provide you with concrete examples, but, as it might
be time-consuming (I wouldn't like to to quote from memory), I need
your indication of such importance.

In turn, would YOU provide us with any evidence the term Rutheni
could be applied to Slavs before X c.?

Sergei