p>zero Celts
From:
João Simões Lopes Filho
Message:
5102
Date:
2000-12-17
How was the evolution PIE *p > Celtic *zero?
p>f>h>zero?
If it's sure, why p>f and t>t k>k? Or can we deduce...
PIE *p > *f > Celtic *h >zero
PIE *t > *th > Celtic *t
PIE *k > *x > Celtic *k
And in Arabian?
Why there's no "p" in Arabian?
Joao SL
Rio