Re: [tied] Re: Gimbutas.

From: Dennis Poulter

 

I read somewhere that one possible consequence of the glottalic theory for PIE is that Germanic could be seen as preserving most faithfully the original phonological system of PIE. In addition, given the parallels in Germanic and Hittite grammar, these two could reflect more faithfully the original grammar of PIE, and that the developments in Greek, Sanskrit etc. should be seen as the innovations.

If this is so, it changes the focus. Perhaps PIE originated in Europe, extended eastwards to the steppes, underwent an evolution there and then speakers of this modified "Steppe" IE then migrated westwards again. Thus, the substratum of IE in Europe would be an earlier variety of the same language. Perhaps, in this way one could explain how IE imposed itself on the European population.
Just a thought.

Cheers
Dennis

I've read such discussions too. I think it's Beekes who says, somewhere, that one consequence of the glottalic theory is that PIE may have lacked voicing as a distinctive phonological feature -- which he finds improbable.

 

Whatever the case, Germanic is quite archaic in terms of phonology. While the sounds have shifted according to Grimm, Verner, etc., everything you read says it has nonetheless conserved more of the presumed original PIE consonantal inventory than any other language.

 

Mark.