From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 2434
Date: 2000-05-17
----- Original Message -----
From: "Gerry Reinhart-Waller" <waluk@...>
To: "Cybalist" <cybalist@egroups.com>; "Piotr Gasiorowski"
<gpiotr@...>
Sent: Wednesday, May 17, 2000 5:17 PM
Subject: [TIED] from /m/ to /t/
> Piotr, is there any evidence of a /m/ to /t/ linguistic
switch in
> English. For example, a switch from idiom to idiot?
>
> Gerry
The direct change /m/ > /t/ is difficult to imagine; the two
phonemes are different in too many respects, including
manner and place of articulation (/m/ is nasal, while /t/ is
not, /t/ is voiceless and 'obstruent', while /m/ is neither,
/m/ is bilabial, while /t/ is coronal). Such changes just
don't take place; most typically a sound change modifies
only one feature at a time.
Piotr