From: Glen Gordon
Message: 1660
Date: 2000-02-22
>You use both terms - "Semitish" and "Semitic". Is there difference >betweenI use "Semitish" as the hypothetical substratum that brought agriculture to
>them?
>Would not it be more correct to discuss a possible Afro-Asiatic >influenceWell, this is up for debate, however we still need to explain the language
>on Vasconic rather than the Semitic/Semitish one? I could >expect rather a
>Berber-like influence (because of pure geographical >reasons).
>Are there Semitic or any Afro-Asiatic traces in the ancient EuropeanI don't know. I know that others have theories on this. I believe there is
>toponimics?
>As far as I know you believe that Proto-Nostratic community existedWell now, it would seem that I'm taking John seriously and imagining an
>somewhere in the Near/Middle East and PIE - in the North Pontic >area.
>It is given that IE and Etruscan (Tyrrhenian) are the closest >NostraticWell, I've narrowed down this Tyrrhenian movement from around 5000 BCE to
>brothers. The question - where and when did they parted? >If I understand
>you right, your answer is: Tyrrhenian went from the >North Pontic area c.
>4500 BC when PIE stayed there.
>I'm afraid some difficulties with chronology and archaeology can >arise
>here.
>What do you (and other list members) think about the variant with the6000 BCE seems way too early for Tyrrhenian. According to Alan Bomhard, the
>parting of PIE and Proto-Thyrrhenian somewhere in South Caucasus c. >6000
>BC?
>The Thyrrhenian attestation of them does notBut this is the thing, I don't know of any Kartvelian words in Etruscan. One
>look improbable. BUT in this case we should expect a relatively high
> >degree of similarity between Etruscan and Kartvelian (the only >Nostratic
>language in the Caucasus are then). Is there any evidence >of this?