From: Agustín Barahona
Message: 6186
Date: 2005-10-06
>Spanish has a phoneme /ñ/, does it not? (Or maybe in your phonology it'sI'm afraid it's not. But now I'm only going to answer your line of argument.
>a sequence /nj/.) The only graphic distinction between that phoneme and
>the dental nasal is the tilde, is it not? Thus the tilde indicates the
>palatalization of n. (Its history is immaterial.)
>The tilde has no other use in Spanish, does it? Thus, the only functionThank you. But then, I understand that it would be the same as to say that in Spanish the duplication of a grapheme is a palatalization mark only because the signs representing the lateral and palatal lateral phonemes are "l" and "ll" respectively; or as to say that in Spanish the "h" is a palatalization/affrication mark only because the signs representing the alveolar phoneme and the palatal affricate are "c" -next to palatal vowels- and "ch", respectively; or as to say that in Spanish the vertical stroke of the "q" or the oblique one of the "Q" is a mark of consonantal feature only because the signs representing the velar vocalic phoneme and the velar consonantal one are "q/Q" and "o/O" respectively; or as to say that in Spanish the inversion in vertical axe of symmetry is an interdentalization mark only because the signs representing the voiceless alveolar fricative phoneme and the voiceless interdental fricative one are "s" and "z" respectively; or etc. etc. (all of them are also
>of the Spanish tilde is to indicate the palatalization of n. Not to
>indicate palatalization in general; only to indicate the palatalization
>of n.