From: Michael Everson
Message: 6039
Date: 2005-09-17
>[Blissymbolics] seems to me a very borderline thing, in that itIt represents a specific non-spoken language, which a defined grammar
>doesn't appear to represent any specific spoken language,
>and yet it does communicate meaning. To me it sounds like a graphicIts primary users are non-speaking people. Their carers speak, of
>language, as opposed to a method to write a spoken language.
>Adding Blissymbolics to my topic map would be quite difficult,Well Blissymbolics is a fact, so you had better extend your ontology.
>because it would require extending the ontology enough to be able to
>describe it.
>I'd probably need a new script type (and have to debate with myselfBlissymbols are ideographic in a rather pure sense. They represent
>whether or not it really is a script type), and also a new category
>of scripts, etc
>I agree with Daniels here: the intended use for the IPA is differentWell, that's just absurd. Latin letters are used to represent sounds,
>from that of Latin. IPA is meant to be used to communicate details
>of pronunciation, whereas Latin is meant to communicate language.
>There is a shared subset of symbols, but that doesn't make them the
>same script.
>I find the way IPA is used in practice quite revealing: dictionariesNo. They write words in English or German or whatever orthography,
>and encyclopedias etc switch between Latin and IPA.
>It's quite clear what is written in IPA, and what is written inOrthography. Not script.
>Latin, and even if some characters are shared, they must be
>interpreted differently depending on which script they appear in.
>(Latin "a" and IPA "a" are not pronounced the same in an English dictionary.)Pronunciation is irrelevant. The Latin letter "c" is pronounced
>So to me it seems quite obvious that there are different scripts,No. A subset of the Latin script is used to write Swahili in natural
>where one is a natural script and the other a phonetic script.