From: Peter T. Daniels
Message: 4990
Date: 2005-04-29
>It has nothing to do with the ease or difficulty of pronouncing sounds.
> Peter T. Daniels wrote:
>
> >
> > > Same here - I haven't kept up, but I have often thought it would be a
> > > mighty good bar bet to claim that I could teach someone how to read
> > > elementary Korean characters in the space of a long day.
> >
> > But not to pronounce Korean.
>
> Yeah there are some sounds that are difficult for native English
> speakers to create, let alone hear.
> > "The usual romanization" is a 1-to-1 transliteration. If it's "full ofThe spellings are not "English." They happen to use most of the same
> > holes," then so is Korean orthography. If you call English spelling
> > "full of holes," then so is Korean -- it's MORPHOPHONEMIC.
>
> 1-1? I think there are sounds in Korean that don't exist in English. So,
> the English spellings are approximations. Japanese has similar issues
> with the kana row labeled "ra-ri-ru...". the sound is not the same as weWhy not???? At the very least, you know perfectly well that you can
> use that letter for. Ina addition, in Japanese, there are various
> semi-standard romanizations floating around, and there may be the same
> for Korean. That is what I was referring to - if there was a one-one
> correspondence, there would not be competing romanizations.
> But I am not yet sure what Andrew was referring too...unlike some people--
> here, I try to express my (mis-)understanding of someone's point rather
> then simply write a simple sentence asking "What did you mean"? I find
> it generally gets quicker results. YMMV.