Richard Wordingham wrote:

> --- In, "i18n@..." <i18n@...> wrote:
> > So it is far from clear to me that there are not forces operating in
> > both directions. Are you saying that there is absolutely no connection
> > between the nature of *any* spoken languages *ever* and the
> evolution of
> > writing systems for them?
> >
> > If so, that would seem to be a pretty broad claim of the type that is
> > disproved by a single counter-example.
> I'm not sure what you're looking for. Are you looking for something
> deeper than spelling pronunciations?

It was an open question - not after anything in particular.

> Changes in speech usually have an effect on a writing system, but I
> don't think anyone would deny that claim

That's what I would have thought too, but somehow (!) it was denied
here...the quoted section above was only to make sure we understood the
nature of the denial, so that if a single counterexample was pointed
out, we could ignore the entire denial. I pretty much expect there is a
counter example, and maybe even large classes of them, which is what I
was wondering about originally.