From: John Cowan
Message: 3146
Date: 2004-07-14
> > Hopefully not, since they plainly are not, unless you define "prose"He is quoting M. Jourdain, who is a philistine, and who is parroting the
> > as "any linguistic expression which is not verse".
>
> Is not that how M. Molière used it?
> Or did you fail to recognize the allusion?I am not a philistine, and I try not to be a pedantic idiot either.
> Now you're doing it too? The point at hand is whether people need to beAu contraire. The point is whether the folk theory of a script has any
> concerned with technical terminology.