From: Marco Cimarosti Message: 3094 Date: 2004-07-13
Peter T. Daniels wrote:
> > But, then, is it still an abjad if it has matres lectionis?
>
> It's moving away from abjadicity.
Fine. But, then, why is an abjad called "abjad", i.e. with the traditional
name of a writing system, Arabic, which has moved away so much from
abjadicity?
Wouldn't it be clearer to call an abjad just "Phoenician", standing that
Phoenician is the only example of a real abjad?
--
Marco
Previous in thread: 3093 Next in thread: 3096 Previous message: 3093 Next message: 3095