John Cowan wrote:

> Does the line of scripts leading to Mongolian and Manchu,
> which descend from an abjad but which have become fully
> alphabetic, constitute an independent invention of the
> alphabetic principle, or was stimulus diffusion from
> Greek operating?

And how about the spelling of Kurdish and Uyghur in Arabic letters?

(These are much more recent developments, so I guess that knowledge of
European alphabets is much more plausible here, but I might be wrong.)

_ Marco