> -----Original Message-----
> From: Tex Texin [mailto:texin@...]
> Sent: 15 September 2003 09:43
> To: qalam@yahoogroups.com
> Subject: Re: scripts page
>
>
>
> Michael Everson wrote with respect to Urdu:
> > In Unicode terms it is the same script.
>
> Now that is an interesting comment, and I probably should
> know this, and a quick look didn't turn up the answer: What
> is the criteria by which Unicode determines what is in or out
> of a script?

All (or at least nearly all) of the characters needed to represent Urdu
are in the Arabic script block. Essentially Persian uses the Arabic
script with a few additional characters, and Urdu uses what Persians use
plus a few more additional characters.

Section 8.2 of the Unicode Standard 4.0 begins with, "The Arabic script
is used for writing the Arabic language and has been extended for
representing a number of other languaes, such as Persian, Urdu, Pashto,
Sindhi, and Kurdish. Urdu is often written with the ornate Nastaliq
script variety." The latter sentence, as Val Ziegler pointed out, is
simply refers to a stylistic/presentational variation as far as Unicode
is concerned.


>
> I realize Unicode labels characters with a script
> identification, but it hasn't occurred to me before this to
> ask the criteria. I had presumed the script was either
> obvious or determined by others, but of course there are
> these grey areas.
>
> I know the labels are from ISO 15924 (and I know you are
> involved with that) and that Unicode is the registration
> authority, but I didn't see any criteria for distinguishing scripts.
>
> How is it determined that Urdu is the same as Arabic?
>
> (I am not trying to argue the case, just trying to understand
> how Unicode and ISO 15924 think about it.)
>
> (And I'll be offline for a few hours now.)
> tex
>
>
> --
> -------------------------------------------------------------
> Tex Texin cell: +1 781 789 1898 mailto:Tex@...
> Xen Master http://www.i18nGuy.com
>
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