--- In phoNet@yahoogroups.com, Piotr Gasiorowski
<piotr.gasiorowski@i...> wrote:

> #2 says: "The specific mechanism is (to the simplest approximation)
> nearest neighbor shift." Again, there are counterexamples to that
(for
> example, the use of a glottal stop for /t/ in some dialects of
English

Surely this change is [t] > [?t] > [?]? Admittedly there are then
two problems:

1) A sequence of changes may happen so quickly that we can only
expect to see the endpoints.

2) Is there any reason to preglottalisation, or is it something that
can come (and go?) for no apparent reason.

> and of uvular [R] replacing apical [r] in some languages are
examples
> articulatorily _abrupt_ changes.

If we are talking about rolls, these are nearest neighbours on the
1979 IPA chart (at least, as reproduced in Crystal's 'Cambridge
Encyclopedia of Language'), in the sense that there is nothing
between them.

Are we not heading to the point that, for a nearest neighbour
approach, we have to allow for auditory closeness as well as
articulatory closeness? That's the explanation you give for [kw] >
[p]. Incidentally, what's the explantion for Greek [k_w] > [t]? I
notice it's recently been challenged at the Yahoo! conlang group.

Richard.