Re: A sanskrit sentence

From: KHANH TRONG HUYNH
Message: 4314
Date: 2015-05-26

Dear Bryan,

Thanks so much,

For my explanation, I early thought that citvā mean having gathered [after cutting down so much] - that's a kind of concise expression.  But I think your judgement is more exactly

Sincerely yours,

Huynh Trong Khanh

From: "Bryan Levman bryan.levman@... [palistudy]" <palistudy@yahoogroups.com>
To: "palistudy@yahoogroups.com" <palistudy@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Tuesday, May 26, 2015 9:53 PM
Subject: Re: [palistudy] A sanskrit sentence

 
Dear Huynh,

Citvā is a gerund from the root ci, to gather. Chitvā is a gerund from the root chid, meaning to cut which I believe is the sense in this passage ("having cut down trees"); per Monier Williams it is spelled chittvā with two t's. I don't know if there is an absolutive (gerund) form chitvā with one -t-. Perhaps someone else knows? Pāli has the form chetvā (from the causative), but not chitvā that I can find.

Best wishes,

Bryan




From: "KHANH TRONG HUYNH testsuda@... [palistudy]" <palistudy@yahoogroups.com>
To: "palistudy@yahoogroups.com" <palistudy@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Tuesday, May 26, 2015 5:17 AM
Subject: Re: [palistudy] A sanskrit sentence

 
Thanks so much for all of your support at my very beginning of Sanskrit study, I also found some textbooks already listing those kinds of grammatical elements. That means my knowledge is still so low that I do not know how to find them

By the way, for the word chitvā in the sentence - I think it is gerund [and I learned that all the gerunds must be in the dictionary, cause the formation steps of gerund are so complicated], but I can only found citvā, not chitvā.  So, that means the word chitvā is correct or not?

Sincerely yours,

Huynh Trong Khanh



From: "Bryan Levman bryan.levman@... [palistudy]" <palistudy@yahoogroups.com>
To: "palistudy@yahoogroups.com" <palistudy@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Tuesday, May 26, 2015 2:27 AM
Subject: Re: [palistudy] A sanskrit sentence

 
Yes it is simply the third person passive, sing. pres. I think svarge should be in the nom. sing (svargo) as narakaḥ is, "If in this way heaven is gone to, hell is gone to by whom?" (If this is the way to heaven, who goes to hell?"). It looks like the verse has svarge in the locative ("If in this way it is gone [by someone] to heaven..." which is possible with gam verbs, but awkward in this case with narakaḥ in the nominative

Bryan





From: "Yuttadhammo Bhikkhu yuttadhammo@... [palistudy]" <palistudy@yahoogroups.com>
To: palistudy@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Thursday, May 21, 2015 9:56 AM
Subject: Re: [palistudy] A sanskrit sentence

 
If I'm not sorely mistaken, it is kammavacaka (passive) vattamāna (present) form of the root /gam - in regards to going: gam (root) + ya (passive suffix) + te (present atmanaipada ending). So the literal translation should be "is gone to".
On May 21, 2015 8:47 AM, "KHANH TRONG HUYNH testsuda@... [palistudy]" <palistudy@yahoogroups.com> wrote:
 
Dear all,

I just translated this sentence:

vṛkṣān chitvā paśūnhatvā kṛtvā rudhirakardamam ।
yadyevaṃ gamyate svarge narakaḥ kena gamyate ॥


I looked up the word "gamyate" on  http://sanskritdictionary.com and got the meaning "one can obtain", while the source-website tranlsated as "is attained".  I still not know what kind of grammatical category of this word, although I think it's also derived from the root "gam"

Please kindly help

Sincerely yours,

Huynh Trong Khanh









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