Re: okaasa (...further)

What seems to me strage about the issue, on reflection, is Kacc.
1-1-9, viz. that the author's dispositions is apparently to accept
others' grammatical terms (a verse widely interpreted to mean current
Sk. terminology of his day) --not to adhere to a canonical standard.

> Do you feel that the author of Kacc-s read and knew the Commentaries,
> and intentionally chose to use "more canonical" language (in this
> instance, or in general)?

E.M.