----- Original Message -----
Sent: Thursday, July 22, 2004 12:15
PM
Subject: [Nostratica] Re: Monogenetic vs
Polygenetic Language
--- In Nostratica@yahoogroups.com,
"nostradafemme" <waluk@......>
wrote:
> Humans without human parents? Are you thinking of
Odysseus or
> possibly Romulus and Remus?
No. Consider the
first human. Either that person had no parents,
or the parents (or
mother if parthenogenetic) were not human. The
boundary line is
arbitrary, and I am sure there are sensible
biological criteria by which a
human may have had non-human parents
and non-human chlidren.
My
point here is that language ability is something that has
developed, so
although language may have developed rapidly
(Nicaraguan Sign Langauge is
often cited as an example), I find it
hard to believe that spoken language
appeared fully developed.
Actually, if we want to argue for
monogenesis, we had better
restrict ourselves to spoken language, or else
the various sign
languages will probably demolish the
claim!
Incidentally, most private languages turn out on investigation
to
have an external ancestor of some sort, so they do not disprove
monogenesis.
Richard.