Re: question

--- In Nostratica@yahoogroups.com, "peter1252001"
<peter1252001@...> wrote:

> AS a theologian engaged in classical hebrew, classical greek and
> latin and sanskrite I have this question, maybe someone can answer

it:

>
> does the greek perfectum form 'oida'( i.e. (o)-id-(a), to have

seen,

> that is to know) relate to the hebrew form 'jada'( i.e. j(a)d(a)) ?

We're talking of the relationship between PIE *weid and Hebrew yada`
(note the final ayin), so it doesn't look promising. My memory
failes me - is the Hebrew vowel pe yodh or pe waw? From the essay
at http://groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/1939 it looks like
pe yodh. In that case the common element _might_ indeed be -yd-,
but the analysis there is way too speculative for my taste.

Richard.