H.M. Hubey wrote:

changes p>t>k and p>b>m could have taken place and
could have taken place long time ago. This seems like a
Nostratic matter.  In the CVC syllable the two C's
changed independently.

...............H E R M E S
...............M E R C U R Y

H=M and M=C (k).  I don't know what else to say. There seems
to be a need for more examples aside from the Turko-Sumerian ones.

Strange things happen and they are ignored usually. For example, there are
two words in Hittite, both meaning essentially, "cooked food" or "cooked dish"

hapalzil, and parsSur (S=sh).

The first is especially "cooked dish" I think. If hap=kap (container, cup), then we
have *hap-palzil thus we have  palzil=parSur, thus

..........................P A L Z I L
..........................P A R S U R

L=R, and Z=S and again L=R. If these liquids were all around in existence, why
are they getting confused with each other? If we look at examples from the real
world, ie.. Japanese/Chinese/Korean, the confusion occurs because they have
only a single liquid phoneme, not because they have 2, or 3, or 4.  Examples
can be found on the Internet but there are words like

digital > dijitaru
printer > purintaru
rice > lice
etc

Why doesn't Hittite have an initial-r? Why don't Turkic languages have
initial-l or initial-r?  Ditto for Dravidian.

Recall Turkic l-r vs sh-z branches. Also recall the anomolous ways in which these
consonants match up with Sumerian words. BTW, the l-r and sh-z are by no
means perfectly regular. Look at how both l-z and sh-r occur together. One of these
for sure, e.g. parSur has gone into Turkic as pish (too cook), and via the Altaic
Turkic p>...B> 0, giving rise to ash (food), asha (to eat), etc. But since we already
have similar words in IE, e.g. English parch (to heat up, dry), essen (to eat), eat (to eat),
etc. not only do we see the same kinds of sound changes as here but also the same as
I gave before. In fact, I think Khaladj has hash (instead of ash) adding further evidence
that the bilabial-F/B (which still exists in Japanese) changed to h in Turkic (already
theorized by Turkologists) and still retained in Khaladj.  It is also pretty clear that
kap (cup) etc is originally Turkic or Prototurkic because among other meanings
(aside from the Sumer kap kagag vs Turkish kap kacak) is that it means "pumpkin, gourd"
which is likely what was used before ceramics. I think there are no ceramics before
5400 BC., and it shows up in words like kabuk (skin, bark), kapa (to cover, close),
ayak-kab (shoe), kapu (door), kap (to bite, eg. close the mouth), etc.

-- 
Mark Hubey
hubeyh@...
http://www.csam.montclair.edu/~hubey