Can we see some type of proof of what people are claiming re Sumerian? Can
you be more precise as to which Sumerian you're talking about and which
time period?
I would suppose that given that Sumerian was used as a prestige
cultural-liturgical written language long after it seems to have
disappeared as a spoken language, then it would have picked up influences
from the native languages of those who used wrote it. Since societies and
their commodities change, there would have to have been neologisms, right?
So, I'd like to see concrete examples and proof for your speculations
--given that I know virtually nothing about Sumerian.
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