What do you make of the arguments of Harald Haarmann (1994),
in `Contact Linguistic, Archaeology and Ethnogenesis: An
Interdisciplinary Approach to the Indo-European Homeland Problem',
Journal of Indo-European Studies 22, 269-288. who concludes "However
one views this, one thing seems clear: there is no evidence of very
early contact between IE and Semitic (Haarmann 1994) and so the IE
dispersal either originated elsewhere or took place before the first
Semitic spread."

I understand he proposes the similarities between the two come from a
third source close to the culture which developed agriculture. Can
you get JIES at all?

I found this at
which is quite an interesting site.

Just to drag out an old chestnut again.....