From: erobert52@...
Message: 573
Date: 2002-04-16
> >My own opinion is that maybe Afroasiatic is ultimately relatedSorry. I meant Kartvelian is more closely related to
> >to Nostratic and DC, and maybe Kartvelian is more closely related
> >than it is, [...]
>
> Kartvelian is more closely related to what than what?
> >but I am not convinced that Kartvelian should be regardedGenetic relationships are a function of sharing a common
> >as being more closely related to IE than some familes that
> >are usually classified as DC - unless you can come up with
> >a (central) Asian origin for it :-)
>
> Linguistics determines language relationships, not archaeology.
> >There has even been made a suggestion that the name Udi is aDunno. I am just quoting from "HU as an EC language". They
> >reflex of *quti".
>
> Interesting. How come it isn't on Starostin's site? How many
> words are reconstructed?
> I doubt PreIE was anywhere near the Caucasus at any time, soI was thinking of the other way round, because I have
> as a consequence I doubt ND loans exist in PreIE except via an
> intermediate language like AbAd or one of its ancestral forms.
> >Ok. Verbs in Nakh cannot be borrowed.That's as may be, and Nakh is as far from impenetrable as
>
> There's no such thing as a language that can't borrow verbs.
> There are languages that might resist foreign influences by
> tending towards creating native terminology for new things
> (like Finnish or German) but there are no impenetrable language
> fortresses that avoid foreign influence altogether.
> >The phonological structural preferences of nouns and verbs areThe million and one other reasons being...?
> >different - see Johanna Nicholls "Chechen" for further details.
>
> Perhaps but how does this prove borrowing as opposed to a million
> and one other reasons for the differences?
> >I mean that words for certain concepts tend to beOk. In Nakh, the degree of lexical economy is also
> >derivations or compounds of other words rather than
> >independent roots. Thus "aunt" is "mother's sister" or
> >"father's sister".
>
> Means nothing. It happens in Swedish (farmor, morfar, farbror,
> faster, etc) and we all know that Swedish is not a creole.
> >No, but Semitic does have personal pronouns. For example,It could be a coincidence too. But if HU and ND are related,
> >the 3rd person singular masculine pronoun in Semitic tends
> >to feature /w/ prominently and the feminine /j/.
>
> Yes, I forgot about that connection. Okay, that could be an
> exception but I still am not sure how Semitic suffixes can end
> up as prefixes in Nakh. Something is bizarre there.
> >There are strange aspects to the behaviour of noun classes inCan you explain this further please, Glen? I can see how
> >Nakh that could point to an external pronominal origin. For example the
> >class marker used by J and V (i.e. /w/) classes in
> >the plural varies between /b/ and /d/ depending on whether the
> >noun is used in the 3rd person or not.
>
> That's inherited. Check out NaDene's obviative and the pronouns
> used there. I also believe that both of these pronouns exist in
> Nostratic and that they had something to do with word classes.
> And I don'tThe Lezgian languages?
> know about anyone else but... well, why the hell would you use
> an otherwise unattested phoneme *z to reconstruct "I"??
> I have a solution. First, split ND and AbAd apart and let's neverWe seem to be in complete agreement here. Is something
> speak of "North Caucasian" again. Second, group Hattic with AbAd
> ("Abadha") and HurroUrartian with ND ("Caucasic").
> Now, let'sYou wouldn't mind showing us how you have come to
> try and get further to the truth here. Maybe something like:
>
>
> Abadha Caucasic
> ------ --------
> 1ps *së *ci (erg. *aci; gen. *ici)
> 2ps *wë *xu (erg. *axu; gen. *ixu)
>
> 1pp *txa *La
> 2pp *sywa *s'u
> I think that Caucasic is closer to BuruYenMaybe it is, but don't go dragging it into the
> than it is to Abadha and the 1ps is an interesting link between
> the two groups.