Re: Did the Norse ever refer specifically to the Anglo-Danes?

--- In norse_course@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott" <BMScott@...> wrote:

>

>> því at á Norðimbralandi váru þeir einir menn, ef nokkut
>> var til, at danska ætt áttu at faðerni eða móðerni, en
>> margir hvárirtveggju

>> "because there were in Northumbria only such men of any
>> importance as those who had Danish family on their
>> father's side, or their mother's side, or both."

> Minor quibble: I'd have said 'and many (had it) on both

sides'.

You're right, thanks.