----- Original Message -----

From: Patricia

To: norse_course@yahoogroups.com

Sent: Wednesday, July 19, 2006 11:10 AM

Subject: Fw: [norse_course] Njála 9 further to the question of LN

Right - the way I saw it was thus the Mig was given it's place for emphasis

mun - will - expressing belief or probability

mig - ME

eigi - not

tjoa - avail

letja - this has "try" in it's meaning - i.e. to try to persuade

 

 

then, bearing in mind the old English legalism - without let or hindrance  I can see a somewhat tenuous relationship of Letja with láta because there was only one instance where I found tjóa and that IIRC was  (Z)

 

Next comes what I found in Faarlund - and I'm still slightly confused

láta - let - this is frequently used without the matrix object (logical subject of the infinitive) as in

 

þa lét hann brenna þa báða

then let he burn them both

then he had then both burned

 

I realise that the relationship of láta is merely tenuous  but  I cannot het my head around they connection with the infinitive, Rnglish is weird enough without trying to define the proper difference between the "let" that means to hinder and the let that means  to allow

I cannot sort this at present 

Bless

Patricia

----- Original Message -----

From: Patricia

To: norse_course@yahoogroups.com

Sent: Wednesday, July 19, 2006 4:23 AM

Subject: Re: [norse_course] Njála 9

og mun mig eigi tjóa að letja.
MM & HP "there's no use attempting to dissuade me" (From the meaning,
it seems as if 'mig' ought to belong to the 'letja' clause, in spite
of its curious position. I wonder if there's anything in Faarlund's
Old Norse Syntax about this sort of thing...)

I have this book and will go look later this morning  it will be interesting,Gods it was stuffy last night no rest and up early - thank the Gods I live alone - I am so stressed out - not fit company for man nor beast - is there an O/N Word for it - it is probably - Ulv something or other

 

When I wrote that it would end in tears - my Gramma said that - whensoever she sought to express disapproval on something - it did so not end in tears for me - apart from a couple of very obvious mistakes with words to which I am unaccustomed I am not as dissatisfied as I had thought I might be

 

Thanks a bundle LN for these corrections - in some cases I "tried to guess - not always good

Kveðja

Patricia

 

 

 

----- Original Message -----

From: llama_nom

To: norse_course@yahoogroups.com

Sent: Wednesday, July 19, 2006 12:23 AM

Subject: [norse_course] Njála 9

mikil vexti "tall [in stature]", i.e. above average hight, rather than
fully grown, I think... MM & HP: "very tall".

langbrók "long-legged" , literally "long trousers". I have a vague
memory of reading somewhere that women in saga-times wore a kind of
trousers. As an undergarment?

honum þótti sér óvíða fullkosta.
MM & HP: "Th. felt there was hardly anyone good enough for him."

'fullkosta e-m', indeclinable adjective, "perfectly matched for
someone, completely acceptable to marry".
'óvíða', "not widely, not in many places".

I think 'fullkosta' is being used in an impersonal way here, as if
neuter, literally: "he thought for-himself [it-to-be] not-widely
perfectly-matched. " Or in more natural English: "he didn't think
there were many who were perfectly suited for him." I suspect MM & HP
are right in reading this as understatement.

Vilt þú biðja Hallgerðar langbrókar
Hennar vil eg biðja

"ask for" in each of these sentences. The person asked would be in
the accusative, the request itself is in the genitive.

Það mun ykkur eigi mjög hent
MM & HP: "It would not be very suitable for either of you." (A nice
way of expressing the dual in English, and avoiding the ambiguity of
"you" on its own.)

og mun mig eigi tjóa að letja.
MM & HP "there's no use attempting to dissuade me" (From the meaning,
it seems as if 'mig' ought to belong to the 'letja' clause, in spite
of its curious position. I wonder if there's anything in Faarlund's
Old Norse Syntax about this sort of thing...)

Síðan rétti Höskuldur fram höndina en Þorvaldur tók í

Alan wrote, "(Is this literally the shaking of hands on the deal as I
took it, or does it refere to Höskuld handing over his daughter and
Þorvald accepting her as Zoega glosses seem to suggest)"

I assumed it was literal, and MM & HP have "H. offered his hand, Th.
shook it."

Patricia wrote, "Well I'm sure this will end in tears , - for me
maybe I wish I might have done better"

I don't have any the statistics for this, but I've certainly met a lot
of examples in sagas where a father in this position does consult his
daughter (not that that doesn't often end in tears too!). Maybe
Höskuldur is the exception?