en meizl við mik ok minna manna (l. 849) – Why is ’mik’ accusative and ‘minna manna’ genitive?

Suggest it is likely that as the subject of the ill-treatment mik is accusative just because of that

Minna Manna being given the genitive seems to be is seen as "men of mine" and therefore they are a "possession" - well kind of

sem vit eigumsk fleira illt við: (l. 853) – I can´t quite get my head around this clause.

No and neither can I - I thought it would be like a threat of being made to exist at a lower level of "standing in the Community".

Thank you Alan for your comments in my translation, especially the wry remark that you are not a specialist in the Laws of the time, if I had only thought more about it it would have seemed reasonable that Hrafnkell would have been over-doing it some-what to have taken Eyvind's wealth - since he had killed Eyvind in the first place - Gory though - ain't it

Kveðja

Patricia