en meizl við mik ok minna manna (l. 849) Why is mik accusative and minna manna genitive?
Suggest it is likely that as the subject of the ill-treatment mik is accusative just because of that
Minna Manna being given the genitive seems to be is seen as "men of mine" and therefore they are a "possession" - well kind of
sem vit eigumsk fleira illt við: (l. 853) I can´t quite get my head around this clause.
No and neither can I - I thought it would be like a threat of being made to exist at a lower level of "standing in the Community".
Thank you Alan for your comments in my translation, especially the wry remark that you are not a specialist in the Laws of the time, if I had only thought more about it it would have seemed reasonable that Hrafnkell would have been over-doing it some-what to have taken Eyvind's wealth - since he had killed Eyvind in the first place - Gory though - ain't it
Kveðja
Patricia