I have studied modern Icelandic and I am well acquainted with the sounds of
the language but I am correct in saying that modern Icelandic has a whole
slew of new sounds that Old Norse did not? Is it safe to say that the
pronunciation of Icleandic has changed a lot in the past 1000 years?
Concerning the pronunciation of Old Norse, I should NOT pronounce:

LL as in Icelandic 's�ll' (tl) but as an Icelandic L
� as in Icelandic '�g' (ye)
AU as in Icelandic 'auga' (French 'euille') but as English 'cow'
� as in Icelandic '�r' but as a lengthened Icelandic A
U as in Icelandic 'eru" but as an Icelandic �
� as in Icelandic '��r' (English 'die') but as in English 'at'
RN as in Icelandic 'barn' (dn) but as (rn)
FN as in Icelandic 'nafn" but as (vn)
RL as in Icelandic 'karl' but as (rl)
V as in Icelandic 'vatn' but as in English 'water'
HV as in Icelandic 'hva�" but as in English 'what'
O as in Icelandic 'kona' but as a Icelandic �
Y/� as in Icelandic 'yfir'/'�sa' but as in a short and long German � (�ber)
or French u (tu)
I as in Icelandic 'vi�' but as an Icelandic �
G in medial position as in Icelandic 'segir' but as in Icelandic 'gull'

If this assumption is false, please let me know.

Also I would like to know if you could tell me why the 'v�r' and '��r' of
Old Norse are 'vi�' and '�i�' in modern Icelandic, which resemble more the
dual pronouns of Old Norse.
Thank you,
William Calhoun

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