after finding what i think is the answer (see below), i attempted to
cancel this mail, but accidentally hit the send button.

i believe the answer is that for adjectives, the presence of j is
archaic and is often not observed. if someone has more insight than
that, i'd love to hear it.

nall.

Jon Nall wrote:

> hi all.
> i've come to a question that, for all of my flipping through gordon, i
> can't find the answer. i'm hoping someone here can shed some light on this.
>
> the book i'm using to learn old norse states:
> - j as an augment or i/j-thematic is realized as i following a long stem
> syllable, or a short stem syllable ending in g.
>
> in trying to decline (frægj-) in the Fem;Nom;Sg or Neu;Nom/Acc;Pl the
> book states the form is "fræg". however, since (frægj-) is a long
> syllable, i would expect the j to be realized as an i and you'd have
> *frægi. (similar to the Nom;Pl of (ríkj-) being ríki).
>
>
>
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