----- Original Message -----
From: Laurel Bradshaw
To: norse_course@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Wednesday, September 10, 2003 11:45 PM
Subject: Re: [norse_course] At last! Finishing Bodvarr / Laurel

Thanks Sarah!  But I do have a question here:
 
Ok nú vil ek at hann heiti eigi Hơttr lengr ok skal hann heita Hjalti upp frá þessu;
and - now - will - I - that - he - be called - not - HQttr - any longer - but - shall - he - be called - Hjalti - from now on
And now I command that he be called Hood no longer, but he shall be called Hilt from now on;
 
There must be some reason why it is "hann heiti" in the first part of the phrase and "hann heita" in the second part, but I don't know what it is, or if there should be some nuance in translation.  I just made it "be called" each time.
 
Also, in Hrafnkel we had varying forms of "heita" used with place names.  These were sometimes prefaced with "í" and sometimes with "á".  Why the preposition, and why two different ones?
 
Laurel
 
 
Laurel
 
This is my convoluted theory regarding your first query; 
'heiti'  is subjunctive because the the king desires, or is visualizing a state of affairs not yet in existence, where Hood is not called by that name any longer.  But this changes when his desire ('vil ek.....heiti etc.') - not yet achieved, does come very quickly into existence by his command ('skal hann heita.... etc.'). The king's command brooks no denial, so what he desires almost immediately becomes a fact.
 
I'll pass on your second query. If I'm wrong on the first one, I don't want to make a fool of myself twice!
 
Cheers
Jed. 

 

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