Re: Substrate language which contributed sarSapa to

In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, wrote:

>Jyothibabu then needs to give evidence of

the said Dravidian source.

That was precisely what I have been doing at every step in the derivation.

>Besides since Sanskrit has velars as well

as Palatals and Sibilants why would it not be able to borrow a Dravidian word starting with the velar?

This is against which discussion?

 

> Asthadhyayi 8.2.30 talks

about velarisation of palatals i.e conversion of ca-varga to ka-varga, compare Skt. vāc >  vāk, Tocharian wek, Hittite huek- .

 

????

 

> So what Jyothi is arguing

for is a crop which does not grow much at all in south India must have been named by Dravidians!

I thought that we were discussing about substrate languages of Indo Aryan and not about south India. Just like mustard the substrate languages to Indo Aryan were also “grew” where Indo Aryan languages are presently spoken.

 

Mustard was grown in India before the arrival of Indo Aryan languages, and the word got adopted into Indo Aryan. That is why it is not having an Indo Aryan etymology.

 

-Jyothi

[Excess quotes removed, and attribution moved to top of post - RW.]