From: shivkhokra
Message: 71542
Date: 2013-11-10
Dear Richard,
Jyothibabu then needs to give evidence of the said Dravidian source. Besides since Sanskrit has velars as well as Palatals and Sibilants why would it not be able to borrow a Dravidian word starting with the velar?
The internal evidence from Sanskrit is actually quite the opposite of what Jyothibabu is claiming. Asthadhyayi 8.2.30 talks about velarisation of palatals i.e conversion of ca-varga to ka-varga, compare Skt. vāc > vāk, Tocharian wek, Hittite huek- .
Furthermore as I indicated earlier Mustard requires cold weather and the claim of Dravidian place names in Gujarat by Southworth is not supported by data.
So what Jyothi is arguing for is a crop which does not grow much at all in south India must have been named by Dravidians!
Regards,
Shivraj
---In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, <richard.wordingham@...> wrote:In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, <shivkhokra@...> wrote:> Dear Jyothibabu,
> You are putting words in Bhadriraju's mouth. Please show us with a proper reference where he comes up with derivation of Sarson (mustard) that you invented.
It wasn't claimed that Krishnamurthy suggested an etymology for _sarSapa_. Moreover, the etymology proposed here doesn't derive the word from Tamil, but from _some_ Dravidian source. Therefore, the *Tamil* loss of initial Proto-Dravidian *c is irrelevant to the suggested etymology.
Richard.