From: stlatos
Message: 70959
Date: 2013-02-19
>Since in Proto-Celtic p > h- / -w- / -x- , p > f > xW first is most likely. You didn't propose that part; I'm talking about your proposal that (after that change?) a borrowing with p- was adapted as f- and arguing against it since all branches make it clear xW existed within them and the name of a place wouldn't have been retained from Proto-Celtic all the way down to the language of one group who THEN happened to live next to the place where the people they supposedly borrowed it from still lived and talked. There's plenty else to say about this, but that's enough.
>
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stlatos" <sean@> wrote:
> >
> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "dgkilday57" wrote:
> > > Many years ago Miguel suggested that the tribal name Volcae meant 'Wolves'. That may well be, if they belonged to the Illyro-Lusitanian branch and used the *wl.kWo- form. They were associated with the Silva Hercy:nia, and if Proto-Celtic borrowed Volcan *Perku:nia: as *Ferku:nia:, that would explain the lack of *p...kW assimilation.
> > >
> > Why do you think so many words were borrowed? You use that excuse whenever any ev. doesn't fit your rules; don't you think you could just be wrong? f > xW would have hapened in Proto-Celtic long before this borrowing by one group in one place long after Celtic split up.
>
> Of course I could be wrong, but I do not recall proposing *f > *xW, and I cannot follow your argument about it.
>
> > > I do not find Sean's ad-hoc claim that Celtic did not assimilate *perkWu- to *kWerkWu- convincing,So no xWu > xu ? Are you intent on reg. for fairhwus ? It could even be analogy, not opt.
> >
> > It's not ad hoc. kW > k by u first, which is seen in Greek, too. Compare fairhwus = world, fairguni = mtn Got; showing that at least sometimes KW>K by u, apparently also after u in the pronouns ugkis vs. igqis . *kWuruz > kaurus shows it's fairly old (before ur>or , at least). Some analogy, assuming the change was regular, later occurred (qim-, qum-, etc.).
>
> In Germanic we do have *kWu- > *ku-, *gWu- > *gu-,
>also *swu- > *su- (LG _sump_ against _swamp_, ablaut-variants)
>No ev. It could be wm, > um before N, > uN , if that even existed in P-Gmc, or an IE dif. (I doubt swm, was allowed).
>and *fwu- > *fu- (_funk_ < *fwunkka-),
>No ev. It's clear fw > f before any V (fón (n) funins (g) Got; fire E; ) and since * juwunga- > * junga- (opt.) you can't say the order * fuwunka- > * funka- before uw>w couldn't work.
>with analogical restoration in pronouns. Obviously this took place before root-/u/ and /o/ fell together in Gothic.
>What do you mean "fell together"? Gothic's oddity is ur > or ( aur ) and ir > er ( air ), etc.
> But it remains ad hoc to assert Proto-Celtic *perkWu- > *perku- > *ferku- > *herku- to explain ONE FORM, Hercy:nia, as native Celtic,Often ONE FORM is all we get for a change, and Celtic is the only European l. with p > h , making any other expl. so unlikely as to req. much more than unsubstantiated guesses.
>
>when Latin _quercus_ demands Proto-Italic *kWerkWu-, not *perkWu-.
>So? I didn't say anything against Proto-Italic, only Proto-Celtic had kWu > ku (at that stage, at least). They were either indep. changes or the same change in dia. that had already started to separate, creating an outcome sim. to Iranian groups in which all show d > l , but some had t > d in dif. env. first, creating the same outcome at one stage, but not the same C in every word.
> > >That's why I said they were either indep. changes or the same change ("It doesn't have to be independent; ... It could still be independent."), and described how both would be in accord w other ev. either way. I favor it being the same change, but I have no specific ev.
> > even though Bolelli proposed a similar makeshift to salvage Hercy:nia as pure Celtic (Cronologia relativa di alcuni fenomeni della fonetica celtica, Ricerche linguistiche 5:101-4, 1962). Labialization of a labiovelar is fairly widespread, but assimilation of a labial to a following labiovelar is rare, and it strains credulity to suppose that Celtic and Italic did this independently,
> > >
> > It doesn't have to be independent; if kW > k by u happened in one dia., that doesn't stop both from having p-kW > kW-kW a little later (though the rule isn't as simple as you say).
> >
> > It could still be independent. Compare Skt and Greek, both having variants of Ch-Ch > C-Ch, even though no other IE felt the need to do any such thing. Comparatively, kW > p in various env. is very common.
>
> But *p...kW > *kW...kW is NOT very common.
>
> > >What is more plausible to you isn't more plausible based on ev. In Arm., just as Celtic, p > h is most common but sometimes p > y:
> > resulting in Itc. *kWerkWu- (Lat. _quercus_) against Ctc. *ferku- (or whatever Sean supposes). I find it much more plausible that Ctc. also had *kWerkWu-, leading to Gaul. *perpu-.
> > >