Re: P-Celtic versus Q-Celtic

My guess is that P-Celtic was a modification that began in the center, leaving Q-Celtic on the periphery. Goidelic and Continental Celtic don't exactly look all that much alike.

In Ball's book on Celtic languages, I believe there is a comparison of all the divergent points among Celtic languages.

When the book was written there was a hot debate on whether or not Brythonic was essentially a form of Gaulish or whether it formed a branch with Goidelic.

Since the book was written, we now have Gallaecian Celtic and Baetic Celtic to deal with in Spain, both of which are different from Hispano-Celtic.

But I'm an amateur, so I'd like to hear updates on what I've read

--- On Thu, 2/7/13, mikewww7 <mwwdna@...> wrote:

From: mikewww7 <mwwdna@...>
Subject: [tied] P-Celtic versus Q-Celtic
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Date: Thursday, February 7, 2013, 4:07 PM

What is the highest probability alternative?

Did the innovation from Q-Celtic to P-Celtic sounds happen on the continent and spread to Britain in the form of Brytonic languages?

Or did the the innovation happen at least twice, once in Gaulish or pre-Gaulish languages and once on the British Isles?

Is this even a fair way to look at the same issue? Is Welsh closer related to Gaelic or to Gaulish languages?

Mike W