Re: bidet

Aragonese, as I have seen in books and on the web is about 99% cognate with Castillian, with very few phonetic diferences. When one speaks of Aragonese, one is speaking of the contemporary language, which, from what's out there on the web and in books, is very close to Castillian.

I believe what you call Medieval Aragonese to be a substrate of what I have seen as Contemporary Aragonese.

Medieval Aragonese, by definition, cannot be a dialect of Mozarabic, given that Mozarabic was an Arabic-influence language written in Arabic letters and did not develop until c. 800-900 CE. It may well have had a common origin in similar forms of Iberian Vulgar Latin.

--- On Sun, 1/13/13, Tavi <oalexandre@...> wrote:

From: Tavi <oalexandre@...>
Subject: [tied] Re: bidet
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Date: Sunday, January 13, 2013, 8:33 AM

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister wrote:
>
> There was some Romance substrate underlying Aragonese.
>
Which is precisely the Pyrenaic language studied by Elcock and García
de Diego.

> I've seen it labeled as Mozarabic but I think that's an anachronic
misnomer.
>
Actually, Ethnologue has classified Aragonese under a Pyrenean-Mozarabic
grouping separate from Hispano-Romance.
http://www.ethnologue.com/show_family.asp?subid=2730-16

> Aragonese seems to be derived from a Castillian dialect with Basque
and other substrates
>
Not really. Aragonese isn't Castilian at all, but a different
Hispano-Romance language which in the Low Middle Ages was not only
spoken in most of Aragon (except the eastern Catalan-speaking strip),
but also in Navarre and Rioja as well as the westernmost parts of the
Kingdom of Valencia (originally a mixed ethnical state within arbritrary
borders much like modern Iraq), but since then it has been gradually
replaced by Castilian and now it's endangered. However, the regional
Spanish spoken there (especially in non-urban areas) has a different
accent than native Castilian and lots of Aragonese lexicon.