--- In
mailto:cybalist%40yahoogroups.com, "shivkhokra" <shivkhokra@...> wrote: > --- In
mailto:cybalist%40yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@> wrote: > > If you just consider the linguistic evidence at even a macro-level, it's obvious > > 1. That Indian-Aryan is derived from Indo-Iranian, which is derived from Indo-European > Let us just take your points one by one. Since the evidence is "obvious" can you please cite examples for your assertion that Indian Aryan is derived from Indo-Iranian? In case anyone proposes bothering to answer this question, will it suffice to demonstrate that: a) Avestan and Sanskrit are more closely
relate to one another than to Old Church Slavonic, Greek or Hittite; b) Avestan and Old Persian are more closely related (in the sense of a common ancestor) to one another than to Sanskrit; and c) Sanskrit and Pali are more closely related to one another than to Avestan? Richard.