Indian Aryan and Indo-Iranian (was: Witzel and Sautsutras)

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "shivkhokra" <shivkhokra@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@> wrote:

> > If you just consider the linguistic evidence at even a macro-level, it's obvious
> > 1. That Indian-Aryan is derived from Indo-Iranian, which is derived from Indo-European

> Let us just take your points one by one. Since the evidence is "obvious" can you please cite examples for your assertion that Indian Aryan is derived from Indo-Iranian?

In case anyone proposes bothering to answer this question, will it suffice to demonstrate that:

a) Avestan and Sanskrit are more closely relate to one another than to Old Church Slavonic, Greek or Hittite;

b) Avestan and Old Persian are more closely related (in the sense of a common ancestor) to one another than to Sanskrit; and

c) Sanskrit and Pali are more closely related to one another than to Avestan?

Richard.