Re: Origin of Sanskrit

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy <bhrihstlobhrouzghdhroy@...> wrote:

> I notice everyone takes as granted that the Indo-Aryans *expanded*,
> wherever from; the logical possibility that they co-evolved in situ,
> starting as PIE dialects (in the whole region between the Steppes
> and India) is scarcely - and never operatively - taken into account
> (although this could reconcile any kind of positive evidence)

Do you mean the Proto-Indo-Aryan language was spoken in an area encompassing NW South Asia, Afghanistan, and the whole of southern Central Asia? I'm asking you this question because this is the logical consequence of a denial of any IA expansions. If IA co-evolved in situ in the whole region between the Steppes and India, the language from which all of them derived must have been covered the same huge region.

Yet, I was taught proto-languages usually cover far smaller geographic areas -- let's say, the size of a small European nation. Why should Proto-Indo-Aryan be an exception?

Kind regards,
Francesco