Re: Origin of Sanskrit (was: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of...

I notice everyone takes as granted that the Indo-Aryans *expanded*,
wherever from; the logical possibility that they co-evolved in situ,
starting as PIE dialects (in the whole region between the Steppes and
India) is scarcely - and never operatively - taken into account
(although this could reconcile any kind of positive evidence)

2012/10/9, Francesco Brighenti <mailto:frabrig%40yahoo.it>:

>
>
> --- In mailto:cybalist%40yahoogroups.com, george knysh <gknysh@...> wrote:
>
>> --- On Tue, 10/9/12, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@...> wrote:
>>
>> > Because the ancestors of the Mitanni, the putative pre-Iranian
>> > Indians and

putative Crimean "Bosphorus Aryans" were never in

>> > India. They moved in from Central Asia. Indo-Aryan is part of
>> > Indo-Iranian, which was originally located in the Eurasia
>> > steppe. Read Witzel and overcome your lack of knowledge
>>
>> ****GK: He doesn't want to overcome his lack of knowledge. He want
>> to overcome your lack of "knowledge" (:=))*****
>
> He just wants to challenge/irritate you cybalist folks. I have discussed the
> same topics with him _ad nauseam_ on this an other lists. Whatever one
> writes, he never cares. Beware you guys!
>
> Francesco
>
> P.S. If you want to enjoy a nice reading about this and other topics,
> download (in pdf format) the full book by archaologist E.E. Kuz'mina you
> find here:
>
> http://www01.us.archive.org/details/TheOriginOfTheIndo-iranians
>
> Don't

advertise it too much, or else Brill will remove it from the Internet

> (they have already done so on other Websites that housed the same book).
>
>
>
>