Re: Origin of Sanskrit (was: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of...

From: Rick McCallister
Message: 70133
Date: 2012-10-09

Because the ancestors of the Mitanni, the putative pre-Iranian Indians and putative Crimean "Bosphorus Aryans" were never in India. They moved in from Central Asia. Indo-Aryan is part of Indo-Iranian, which was originally located in the Eurasia steppe.Read Witzel and overcome your lack of knowledge

From: shivkhokra <shivkhokra@...>
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Monday, October 8, 2012 9:24 PM
Subject: [tied] Re: Origin of Sanskrit (was: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of...)
 
But why could'nt they have left India since there are other examples of languages migrating out of India?

a) Parya langauge in Uzbekistan
b) Prakrit Gandhari in Khotan
c) Dumaki in the Shina region
d) Gypsy language of european gypsies

Regards,
Shivraj

--- In mailto:cybalist%40yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@...>
wrote:

> The similarity is due to an IA contact in Central Asia, where it was
> located before entering India. Not all Indians entered India, some
> evidently moved west into Crimea, e.g. the Sindos

[Excess quoted matter deleted. -BMS]