Re: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of the Indo-European Language

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Francesco Brighenti" <frabrig@...> wrote:

> > Why would the same word develop in Polish into both <Odra> and
> > <wydra>?

> That's a good question! Yet, don't expect people being only driven by religious fanaticism and by a nationalistic-cum-chauvinistic agenda to be able to reply to it.

How did the initial vowel become long in Balto-Slavonic? In Sorbian, the jer /U/ would have yielded /o/ in this word.

Richard.