Re: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of the Indo-European Language

Basically, Sanskrit was and is an artificial language, much like Church Latin. It has no descendants.

Old Indian was a spoken language or set of closely related languages. But Sanskrit was and is a polished invented to transcend regional differences and to offer a common written form.

From: shivkhokra <shivkhokra@...>
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Monday, September 3, 2012 2:47 AM
Subject: [tied] Re: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of the Indo-European Language Family

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham" <richard.wordingham@...> wrote:
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "shivkhokra" <shivkhokra@> wrote:
>
> > Thus River Oder is named after Sanskrit Udra meaning an aquatic animal which in sanskrit neuter gender means water. In Polish it is called wydra (read vedra) and in english/german otter (oder).
>
> > Why would European river name(s) have Sanskrit meanings?
>
> Sanskrit, Germanic and Balto-Slavonic.

This did not parse.

>
> > Since fundamentals of Germanic could be only understood from Sanskrit...
>
> Greek was also relevant. I'm assuming that Greek and Sanskrit were needed to learn how to reconstruct PIE accent from Balto-Slavonic.
>

Not to Verner. Verner only used Sanskrit to fix the discrepancies in Grimm's law.

> > ...why would these two languages not have a genetic relationship?
>
> Germanic and Sanskrit *are* genetically related. Indo-Iranian and Germanic are different *branches* of Indo-European.
>

But no other European language, including Greek, can clarify all accent related discrepancies in Grimm's law. Only Sanskrit could.

So why would Germanic not be a descendant of Sanskrit?

-Shivraj