Re: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of the Indo-European Language

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham" <richard.wordingham@...> wrote:

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> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "shivkhokra" <shivkhokra@> wrote:
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> > Thus River Oder is named after Sanskrit Udra meaning an aquatic animal which in sanskrit neuter gender means water. In Polish it is called wydra (read vedra) and in english/german otter (oder).
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> > Why would European river name(s) have Sanskrit meanings?
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> Sanskrit, Germanic and Balto-Slavonic.

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> > Since fundamentals of Germanic could be only understood from Sanskrit...
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> Greek was also relevant. I'm assuming that Greek and Sanskrit were needed to learn how to reconstruct PIE accent from Balto-Slavonic.
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Not to Verner. Verner only used Sanskrit to fix the discrepancies in Grimm's law.

> > ...why would these two languages not have a genetic relationship?
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> Germanic and Sanskrit *are* genetically related. Indo-Iranian and Germanic are different *branches* of Indo-European.
>

But no other European language, including Greek, can clarify all accent related discrepancies in Grimm's law. Only Sanskrit could.

So why would Germanic not be a descendant of Sanskrit?

-Shivraj