--- In
cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Richard Wordingham" <richard.wordingham@...> wrote:
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "shivkhokra" <shivkhokra@> wrote:
>
> > Can you please explain what do you mean by "fit"?
> > What would be a few salient features of Germanic which does not make it "fit"?
>
> Vocabulary. It is generally reckoned to have a very high proportion of non-IE, or at least, hard to recognise vocabulary.
>
If we look at some hydronyms of Europe we find in the book
"Poland & Germany": Studies Centre on Polish-German Affairs -
Poland - Published 1958 on Page 26:
"....for water was wudra (cf. Sanskrit udra) and this locution yields
the Polish name of Odra for the river Oder.* The word later became woda and a much smaller stream in Pomerania is ..."
From vedic times Udra means both water and otter:
Rigveda 7.49.1
samudrájyeSThaaH salilásya mádhyaat punaanaáH yanti ánivishamaanaaH
Samudra = sam + udra (water) ;
Yajurveda 5.5.20.1
alaja antariksas udro madguh plavas te pam
The alaja is for the atmosphere, the otter ... these for the waters
Thus River Oder is named after Sanskrit Udra meaning an aquatic animal which in sanskrit neuter gender means water. In Polish it is called wydra (read vedra) and in english/german otter (oder).
Why would European river name(s) have Sanskrit meanings?
> Grimm's shift makes it stand out, though that's possibly dubious as a reason to exclude it from other groups.
>
The discrepancies in Grimm's law, which were explained by Verner, required the understanding of Sanskrit. Without knowing Sanskrit he could not have explained the role of accent in the change of character in Germanic consonants.
Since fundamentals of Germanic could be only understood from Sanskrit why would these two languages not have a genetic relationship?
-Shivraj
(PS: I am still working on the other two points you mentioned).