Re: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of the Indo-European Language

From: Rick McCallister
Message: 70006
Date: 2012-08-30

The Slavs did move into territory formerly occupied by Iranian speakers. I don't think the Balts did, though --it's seems a bit north.

From: Richard Wordingham <richard.wordingham@...>
To: cybalist@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Thursday, August 30, 2012 2:46 PM
Subject: [tied] Re: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of the Indo-European Language Family

 
--- In mailto:cybalist%40yahoogroups.com, "Joao S. Lopes" <josimo70@...> wrote:

> If this scenario is true, Satemization appeared in different lines: Balto-Slavic, Albanian, Armenian and Indo-Iranian. Is it convergent evolution, or consequence of a common isogloss?

Horizontal transfer seems to be the best explanation.

As far as I can work out from Atkinson's expansion clip, Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian are almost at opposite extremes of the IE range, rather than neighbours. This looks like a mistake. Perhaps they can rescue it by making movement across the steppes easier.

Richard.