From: Tavi
Message: 69623
Date: 2012-05-15
>Unlike the traditional model, I think the fact that Proto-Celtic *F *synchronically* correlates to /p/ in other IE languages doesn't necessarily imply that *diachronically* it evolved from a proto-phoneme *p.
> > The presence of p is not against this if the common Celtic change
> > was p > pF , with most dia. pF > F > xW , etc.
>
> I beg your pardon?
>
> > Most Celtic shows p- > (h)- and -p- > -w-,
> > just like Armenian, and pt > xt but wtH in Armenian, which allows an
> > intermediate p>F>xW to be reconstructed.
>
> I see. But other stops also give /x/ before /t/, so this can't be conclusive.
>
> But we've got actual evidence of p-Celtic loanwords into Goidelic where /p/ was adapted as /kW/.Also early Latin loanwords like the ones quoted by Torsten had p > kW. Of course, this happened because Goidelic lacked /p/, so the foreign phoneme was replaced by the closest one in the native language.
>
> I should recognize your idea is interesting, but it still needs someThe shift [w] > [gW] is common in Romance languages, and it can be found in Germanic loanwords. Even today, many Romance speakers pronounce [w] as [gW ~ Gw].
> working. For example, to explain the different outcomes of Celtic *w- in
> Goidelic (Irish f-) and Brythonic (Welsh gw-).
>